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Old January 6th, 2007 #9
aherne
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Mind the usage of word "Aryan" as a denominator of Indo-Iranians. In this acception, one of the points of your article is correct. Archaeological evidence (and racial, I'm certain, but noone studies race anymore) suggests Indo-Iranians followed their herds eastwards into Eurasian steppes, from which they descended in Iranian Plateau and Indus Valley by 1,500BC, the date when their language started to diverge. A speaker of Avestan could still understand basic Sanscrit, thus the separation of Indians and Iranians preceded first attested linguistic evidence by no more than a few centuries.